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> China, like Russia, started from an incredibly low baseline - largely caused by authoritarian power. A new authoritarian power revitalized the economy and genuinely improved people's lives. People are generally grateful, and they have reason to be.

Besides the ideological component here being embarrassingly incoherent (the bad was caused by "authoritarian power" in general; the good was caused by "a new authoritarian power" in particular) your facts are plain wrong. The low baseline was pre-Mao (and pre-Lenin) when famine, illiteracy, technological impoverishment, and labor immobility was the rule. Deng's opening up certainly was something, but it undoubtedly stood upon the shoulders of the Mao era. Even the WEF agrees: https://www.weforum.org/stories/2025/06/how-china-got-rich-4...

> But the “conventional wisdom” ignores the fact that — even inclusive of the serious mistakes, lost lives and lost years that some insist define the early decades after 1949 — the foundations laid during Mao’s rule, including land reform and redistribution, substantial investments in heavy industry, public health, literacy, electrification, and transportation gave China a substantial leg up. These developments positioned China for takeoff well ahead of the official inauguration of Reform and Opening in 1978. While Deng’s reforms catalyzed China’s economic takeoff, they built upon critical foundations established during Mao’s era, which are often overlooked.

Even the WEF is wrong, of course, because they do the usual thing of inflating the importance of GDP; GDP has virtually no applicability to a socialist economy and the "revitalization" you speak of was, as far as its quantitative measure, a magic trick. A literal capitalization upon decades of labor mobilization.


> The low baseline was pre-Mao (and pre-Lenin) when famine

Wow, so we are on rewriting history now?

“Lenin” and his cronies caused a massive famines with their own hands.

Substantial percentage of population died of hunger on a very fertile soil without any natural disaster [0].

0. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Soviet_famine_of_1930%E2%80%93...

At some point relatively early in the Soviet revolution, recurring famine was abolished. Famine occurred about once a decade for the entirety of documented history. Then it stopped. The interesting thing isn't how famine occurred in the early 30s (or the 40s to a much lesser extent), it's how it was absolutely prevented from occurring since. Industrialization of agriculture, collectivization, and centralized grain distribution was the solution. You have to admit that it happened. It was the same with the Chinese revolution. My point is that this all happened before "opening up", and that it was part of the logic of socialism.
Yeah, that’s not what happened.

The Wikipedia’s article I linked in the previous comment has a good overview.

Also the list of famines worldwide [1] does’t confirm your statement with famine every 10 years. And especially there were very few famines with millions of dead from hunger before on the eastern eu territory - the one in 19xx was man-made in its entirety.

1. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_famines

It's been 80+ years since a famine in the former Soviet Union. Here's your Wikipedia:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Droughts_and_famines_in_Russia...

> From the beginning of the 11th to the end of the 16th century, on the territory of Russia for every century there were 8 crop failures, which were repeated every 13 years, sometimes causing prolonged famine in a significant territory.

(That was already right there in your Wikipedia link. Sources are more scattered regarding the 17th, 18th, and 19th centuries, but it's all there if you search for it. One thing I was just reminded of is that in the 19th century and up until 1917, the Russian Empire maintained communal granaries to combat recurring famine, but to no avail.)

> After 1947 there were no known famines.

They obviously meant famines in the location that is being discussed. Why would they be talking about worldwide famines? How would a famine in South America be relevant to the Soviets?
The famine of the 19xx scale is the “world-grade” event.

There were just few of such magnitude in the entire world in all of our knowledge.

Did the Bolsheviks also control the weather? Also Lenin was dead by 1930. Your fanaticism is showing.

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