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European farms during the middle ages were far more efficient than European farms during Roman times. Egyptian farms during Roman times were more efficient than both.

Do you have a source for that? The sources I can find like Varo, Cato, and Columella’s table of farm labor inputs versus pre-industrial British and European records show that they are comparable and Roman yield was often significantly higher thanks to well organized labor and very productive regions like Etruria.

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